Question: In the Bible, in 1 John 5:16-17
what is the sin mentioned that does not result in death?
Answer:
These verses have intrigued many people, and many
explanations have been given by various Commentators. Therefore it may not be
possible to have a clear explanation acceptable to
everyone. When interpreting or understanding 1 John 5:16-17, it is quite common
to start thinking in context of verses related to sin and it's damning effects,
e.g. Romans 3:23 and Romans 6:23, and other Bible verses with a similar
application.
But we need to
keep in mind and consider the fact that at the time when John wrote this
epistle, the New Testament had neither been compiled from the many writings
available at that time, nor was it available to the people in the form we have
it now. Therefore the people to whom John wrote this letter did not have those
verses and the related teachings which we now have with us, on the basis of
which we now try to interpret and understand these verses.
Hence those people then could not see and understand what John had written to
them, in a manner similar to how we commonly see and understand them today; nor
could they apply any meanings from other New Testament teachings into these
verses, as we presently do. Therefore to understand these verses, they should
be seen and understood in the same context and manner as those initial audience
did, when John had written to them. That is the primary and basic meaning of
these verses/statements; any other meanings and interpretations that are
ascribed can be supplementary or complimentary to this primary meaning; but the
other meanings cannot ever replace this primary meaning.
On reading the initial chapters of John's letter it
seems that amongst the audience to whom this letter was addressed, though some
were 'children' in the Christian Faith, but most of them were of a good
standing and maturity, and knew the facts related to righteousness and their
faith (1 John 2:7, 13, 14, 20, 21, 24, 27). Therefore it is quite likely that
they had some knowledge and understanding about the Law given to the Israelites
through Moses in the Old Testament. For those who believed in God
Jehovah, their understanding of what sin is and what it is not was according to
that part of the Scripture which we know as the Old Testament today; and from
it mainly according to the Law. When we see on the basis of the Old
Testament righteousness and Law, we see in the Law there are some sins
mentioned for which there was no repentance and atonement provided, only the
death penalty had been decreed for them; for example see: Exodus 28:43;
Leviticus 22:9; Numbers 1:51; 3:10; 3:38; 18:7; 18:22; 18:32; etc. In Leviticus
10:1, 2 we see that Nadab and Abihu were given no time or opportunity to
repent, nor was anyone given any opportunity to intercede and pray, or offer
any atonement for them, they died immediately. The people who were aware of the
righteousness of the Old Testament, they knew that in the Law some sins are
mentioned that have the death penalty prescribed for them, with no
provision of repentance, atonement, and forgiveness having
been made for them; therefore, even if forgiveness were to
be asked for them, there is no possibility of any
forgiveness being granted for them.
Secondly, in 1 John 5:16 twice a sense of
"petitioning or praying" has been used; once as
"ask" and second time as "pray". For these two instances, two separate words have been used in the
original Greek language. The word used
for the first instance is ‘aiteo’ which means ‘to ask’, or, ‘to request’;
whereas the word used in the second instance is ‘erotao’ which means ‘to
interrogate.’ When we see the various English Versions of the Bible, then too
the same thing becomes apparent that not all translators render these
words as "pray" in the sense of putting forth a petition
or making a request. Therefore, we can paraphrase 1 John
5:16 as follows “If anyone sees his brother sinning a sin which does
not lead to death, he can ask [‘aiteo’ -
request God], and He will give him life for those who commit a sin
not leading to death. There also is a sin leading to death. I do not say that
he should pray [‘erotao’ – interrogate, or be inquisitive] about that.” Here the
"pray" used in the latter part of the verse is not in the same sense,
as we commonly understand it to mean as asking or petitioning God for something
to seek His favor or benevolence.
Here a note needs to be made of two very
significant things in the verse that have a direct bearing on its
interpretation and on understanding its meaning. The first
is, as stated at the beginning of the verse, John is saying this about
"his brother" i.e. another Christian Believer; or about a person who,
by coming into faith in the Lord Jesus and having received forgiveness from
sins by the grace of God, has entered into eternal life (John 1:12-13). Being a
Christian Believer, he is now outside the purview and requirements of the Law
and its compulsions; the requirements of the Law have no hold upon him (Romans
7:6; Colossians 2:14), and he can neither be evaluated under the provisions of
the Law, nor held guilty and penalized under the Law.
The second is, that the verse ends by saying “...There
is sin leading to death. I do not say that he should pray about that” and
this is the sentence that has caused the uncertainty and confusion related to
this verse. The important thing to be noted here and to be
understood is that John has not said “since those
sins of that person will not be forgiven so I am not asking you to pray for
them” – but generally that is the understanding and meaning that is assumed and
accepted while reading this verse; whereas that is not
what is written here. Instead of "pray" if we use the literal meaning
of the original Greek word ‘erotao’ i.e. ‘to interrogate’, then the sentence
becomes “...There is sin leading to death. I do not say that he should 'be interrogated' about that”, or, “...there is sin which leads to death as per the Law: but
there is no need for anyone to interrogate or be
inquisitive about it.” Reading this with the first factor - "brother"
in mind, now the meaning of what John is saying becomes, that, when the Lord
has forgiven that person who could not have been forgiven through the Law, and
has included him in His Church and made him a member of His family as a child
of God, then why should some person be interrogating about his sins; what need
does anyone have of inquiring about his sins? He may have committed a sin which
is unforgivable according to the Law, but you have nothing to do with the
person's sins being forgivable or not, therefore there is no need for you to
interrogate or inquire about them.
If we see this verse, 1 John 5:16, in context of
its preceding verses, then too this interpretation fits in with what is being
said in those verses. In 1 John 5:13-15 John is explaining to his readers that
through faith in the Lord Jesus they have not only received eternal life, but
they also been given the confidence to ask of God, and that if their petitions
are in accordance with the will of God then having heard their petitions, He
will also fulfill them. Since, as per John 3:16 it is God's will to provide
eternal life to those who believe on the Lord Jesus, and now since the Law and
it's penalties are no longer applicable upon us because of our being in Christ
Jesus, therefore they can unhesitatingly ask for pardon and for eternal life
being granted to even those, who were not worthy of this on the basis of the Law,
and the Lord will grant eternal life even to them.
It may be possible that on the basis of the Law,
some people may have been hesitant and may have
doubted that when God has already decreed the death
penalty for some sins in the Law, then how can we ask God to go
back on His word and change His Law? Here John is encouraging them, that
even if someone has committed a sin, which according to the Law is to be
punished by death, even then the way has been opened for him, and through the
Lord Jesus he has the opportunity to receive forgiveness and eternal life.
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